Question: Jesus (Yeshua) said, "be not called rabbi, for one is your Master: Messiah; and, do not be called masters, for one is your Master: Messiah; and call no man on earth father, for one is your Father: He Who is in heaven.", can you, please, explain this to me?

Answer: Some would use these verses to prove that it is wrong and unscriptural to call anyone rabbi. I believe in the context of these scriptures Yeshua was opposing the concept of any term or title which would cause a sharp delineation of clergy and laity.

He would likewise be opposed to the title reverend, if it means exalting clergy above laity. The Pharisees had a reputation for outward piety, although quite often it was a show for the public, since their hearts were not right with God. They therefore used their titles so as to gain praise from men. It was against this that Yeshua was speaking.

If we were to take these scriptures literally then children would not be able to call their dad, father. Yeshua was using a hyperbole here, showing His disagreement with the type of religious separation between clergy and laity being practised by the Pharisees. Here in fact are two of many scriptures where Paul applied the title father to a man, in fact in one instance to himself.

Romans 4:12 12 And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised. (KJV)

1Thessalonians 2:11 11 As ye know how we exhorted and comforted and charged every one of you, as a father doth his children, (KJV)

Question: Jesus was crucified by the Romans, not the Jewish priests. He was not slaughtered / sacrificed in the Temple but outside the Holy City on unsanctified ground. He was exposed to the dead, which nullifies Mosaic sacrifices, His blood was not poured out on the alter as required for sacrifices. Human sacrifice (let alone deity sacrifice!) is not accepted under the Law… And besides, when did God ever accept a blood sacrifice from the hands of a Pagan priest (or soldier) anyway? So, my question, how could his crucifixion have met the biblical requirements? If "Jesus fulfilled the Law" specifically which Laws did he fulfill? I don’t see that he fulfilled any of the sacrificial Laws/requirements as described in the TANAK or Hebrew Scriptures.

Answer: The Tanach teaches us that the price of sin is death, both physical and spiritual death. Physical death entered the world through the sin of Adam and Eve. Spiritual death separates us from G-d. It also, if left un-atoned for prior to physical death, means eternal separation from G-d. That is what hell is; it is eternal separation from G-d. While there is life there is hope, but there is no hope for someone who dies in sin. They are eternally separated from G-d. There are many sacrifices prescribed in Torah which took place outside the camp. The first Passover offering took place in Egypt. The Red Heifer Offering was burned outside the camp, as was the Yom Kippur offering. Only their blood was brought inside the camp. These were special offerings. Yeshua was a special case as well. As G-d He was the Torah. As man He came to die in our place. The decree of "you sin; you die," was against man. Animal sacrifice was G-d’s temporary alternative until the time of Messiah was right, otherwise there would be no one left on earth, for all have sin: Proverbs {20:9} Who can say, I have made my heart clean, I am pure from my sin? Yeshua came to pay the price for our sin. He came to satisfy the law. It was G-d who wrote the law and it was G-d who satisfied the law. The Just became the Justifier; that is grace! Which law did He justify you ask? The law of sin and death, the one that says "you sin you die," spiritually. As for your question about Yeshua’s blood not being sprinkled upon the alter, the Book of Hebrews in the Brit Chadasha (Renewed Covenant) answers that question for us: Hebrews {9:11} But Messiah being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building; {9:12} Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us. {9:13} For if the blood of bulls and of goats, and the ashes of an heifer sprinkling the unclean, sanctifieth to the purifying of the flesh: {9:14} How much more shall the blood of Messiah, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to G-d, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living G-d? Yeshua acted as His own High Priest. First Scripture tells us that nobody crucified Him, He offered Himself willingly as our substitute: John {10:17} Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. {10:18} No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father. In addition we are told that Yeshua was a High Priest after the order of Melchesidec: Hebrews {5:6} As he saith also in another place, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec. He was therefore qualified to perform sacrifices.

Question: Using the Name. One of the sillynesses of the messianic movement is this notion of the L-rd G-d. When we are born again, we are as Christ told us "His bride".  As His bride we are entitled to the FAMILY NAME for pity sakes. God is our Father, and His Son is our bridegroom.  We are now family, entitled to the family name as we are betrothed to the Father’s Son. Shalom, for to know God is to know true PEACE Dr. Ron

Answer: Shalom Pastor Ron; Thank you ever so much for your comment. We are well aware of our family relationship with the Farther. Messianic Judaism is a unique movement. We desire to be a light to our unsaved Jewish brothers and sisters. As such we do not wish to offend anyone of them who may be reading or web page or material. Jewish people hold the name G-d in very high esteem and are careful not to use His name in vain. Perhaps we can learn something from that. Also 1 Corinthians 9:20ff.

Question: I have a question…. I have a kippah…. I have been brought up to believe that the kippah is to be the sign that G-d is with us. Now, in the New Testament it says, 1Co 11:4 Every man praying or prophesying, having his head covered, dishonoreth his head. It also says, 1Co 11:7 For a man indeed ought not to cover his head, forasmuch as he is the image and glory of God: but the woman is the glory of the man. Does this mean we should no longer wear our kippahs?

Answer:  Headcoverings for men: In many places in the Bible, a man was supposed to cover his head. However, in the English mistranslations, Rav Shaul (Paul) seems to be writing against this practice, at Korintim Aleph / 1 Corinthians 11.

Consider that in Torah, the Levites were to cover their heads as a sign of submission to HASHEM. In fact, Vayikra / Leviticus 21:10-11 even states that the Kohen haGadol (the High Priest) was never to uncover his head, not even for the death of a relative.  And then in the Prophets we read that when Abshalom chased David out of Yerushalayim, David went barefoot, and covered his head.  Also, In Yechezkel / Ezekiel 44:18 we read that the Millennial Priesthood will be wearing linen turbans on their heads. But if Yeshua did not come to do abolish the Torah or the Prophets, then how can Shaul write that a man is not supposed to cover his head? It makes no sense.

When we read the mistranslation of this passage in the English, we read:  [4] Every man praying or prophesying, having his head covered brings shame to his head. [5] And every woman praying or prophesying with her head uncovered brings shame to her head, for that is one and the same as if her head were shaved. [6] For if a woman is not covered, let her also be shorn. But if it is a shame for a woman to be shorn or shaved (and it is), [then] let her be covered. [7] For indeed a man should not cover his head, since he is the likeness and esteem of The Eternal One, but the woman is the esteem of man.  Korintim aleph 11:4-7. (ISR)

However, when we take this passage back to the Greek translation of the Hebrew originals, we see something very different than in the mistranslation into English: [4] Every man praying or prophesying down over (his) head having shames the head of him (speaking of a veil).

Every but woman praying or prophesying uncovered with the head, shames the head of herself, one for it is and the same with being shaved. If for not is covered a woman, also let her be shorn. If but shameful for a woman to be shorn or to be shaved, let her be covered. A man for indeed not ought to be covered the head, the image and glory of [The Eternal One] being. Korintim aleph 11:4-7 (Green’s Interlinear).

The key to understanding this passage is twofold:  1.- Shaul was not writing against the practices and traditions of the forefathers (the Patriarchs), as recorded in the Torah. He would not, and he could not, or else he would not be of Messiah, who did not come to abolish the Torah (Mattitityahu 5:17-20).  

Question: I read your study every week and I thank you for them. I have a question and I was wondering if you would answer it? I was curios I have seen where the term RUACH-Hakodesh is of a female nature name or reference and I was wondering why you call the Ruach Hakodesh …HIM? I was taught the Ruach HaKodesh רוח הקודש is really a famine reference and therefore completes the Family of G-D.
Could you please enlighten me as to which is correct?

Shalom,
Tom

Shalom Tom;

Answer: Hebrew is a language unlike any other. The use of the feminin is not unusual even when referring to the masculine. The word may be feminin but that does not necessarily mean that what it is referring to is feminin. There are many such examples in Biblical Hebrew, Ruach HaKodesh is only one of them. You can not apply English concepts to Biblical Hebrew it doesn’t work. Example the word Avot is feminin but it means fathers.

Question: How does one establish that one is "a Jewish person"? Since there were 13 tribes of Israel and many populations moved to Europe and much of this population preserved their ‘Jewishness" or indeed, their original faith, what about the rest of us who may be "Jewish" originally but whose original faith has been lost due to migrations and so on… I support Messianic Jewry as an essential reality of history and of those millions of Jews who accept our Messiah, as foretold in Micah

Blessings,

Answer: Shalom from Congregation Melech Yisrael:

Thank you for writing to us, if you want to learn more about us, please visit our website, www.cmy.on.ca and use the search engine there. By using it you may be able to find the answer to other question. Our website contains hundred of Biblical studies in many languages from the Torah centred Messianic Jewish Perspective.  Now to the question at hand:

Our answer: Biblically if your father was born into the Jewish nation  his offspring are natural branches, part of the Jewish nation. In addition anyone, according to Ephesians 2:12, who is born again is automatically grafted into the Jewish nation and becomes an equal heir to the promises made to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Religiously however, you are only religiously Jewish if your mother was religiously Jewish or her mother was religiously Jewish, that is part of the Jewish religion. Hitler went back four religious generations in his quest to kill Jews, so I presume the rabbis do as well. Religious Jews, other than those of the tribe of Levi do not know their tribal ancestry. It seems that only the Levites passed down their heritage. However, even that assumption is iffy.

Question: Is it just a Jewish tradition to pray with tefillin daily (no tefillin required on Shabbat and high Holidays). Does it say in the Torah that we must wear it while doing the morning prayers?

Answer: Nowhere in Torah does it say that you must wear Tefillin to pray, not in the morning, not anytime. Tefillin are a rabbinical interpretation of Devarim 6:8-10. They were in common uses during Yeshua’s time and it is presumed that He used them. Wearing tefillin for morning prayer is a rabbinical tradition. I happen to think it is a good one, because of the symbolism of binding the word of God on your hand, close to your heart. It is a reminder to use your hands for the work of God and being on the left hand close to the heart is a reminder to keep the word of God always on your heart. The tefillin on your head reminds you to think the thoughts of God all day. HaShem gives us many such reminders throughout Torah.